From my Economics textbook;
Why is X-inefficiency allowed to occur if it reduces profits? The answer is that managers may have goals, such as corporate growth, an easier work life, avoidance of business risk, or giving jobs to incompetent relatives, that conflict with cost minimization.
Yeah, I had to do a double take too. But it's really there.
I can't tell if the author is being tongue in cheek or not.
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